JEE Challenger
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Properties and Differentiability of Functional Equations

Let f:R→Rf: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} and g:R→Rg: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} be real functions fulfilling f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)+f(x)f(y)andf(x)=xg(x)f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + f(x)f(y) \quad \text{and} \quad f(x) = xg(x) for every x,y∈Rx, y \in \mathbb{R}. Provided that lim⁡x→0g(x)=1\lim_{x \to 0} g(x) = 1, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

Options

A

ff is differentiable at every x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}

Correct
B

If g(0)=1g(0) = 1, then gg is differentiable at every x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}

Correct
C

The derivative value f′(1)f'(1) is equal to 11

D

The derivative value f′(0)f'(0) is equal to 11

Correct

Step-by-Step Solution

To solve the given problem, we analyze the functional relations and limit conditions provided:

  1. f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)+f(x)f(y)f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + f(x)f(y) for all x,y∈Rx, y \in \mathbb{R}
  2. f(x)=xg(x)f(x) = x g(x) for all x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}
  3. lim⁡x→0g(x)=1\lim_{x \to 0} g(x) = 1

Step 1: Value of f(0)f(0) and f′(0)f'(0)

From the relation f(x)=xg(x)f(x) = x g(x), substituting x=0x = 0: f(0)=0⋅g(0)=0f(0) = 0 \cdot g(0) = 0

Now, using the definition of derivative at x=0x = 0: f′(0)=lim⁡h→0f(h)−f(0)h=lim⁡h→0hg(h)−0h=lim⁡h→0g(h)f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{h g(h) - 0}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} g(h)

Given that lim⁡x→0g(x)=1\lim_{x \to 0} g(x) = 1, we get: f′(0)=1f'(0) = 1

Thus, Statement (D) is TRUE.


Step 2: Differentiability of f(x)f(x) for all x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}

For any arbitrary x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}, we evaluate the derivative f′(x)f'(x) using the first principle of differentiation: f′(x)=lim⁡h→0f(x+h)−f(x)hf'(x) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}

Using the given functional equation f(x+h)=f(x)+f(h)+f(x)f(h)f(x + h) = f(x) + f(h) + f(x)f(h), we can rewrite the numerator as: f(x+h)−f(x)=f(h)(1+f(x))f(x + h) - f(x) = f(h)(1 + f(x))

Substituting this into the limit expression gives: f′(x)=lim⁡h→0f(h)(1+f(x))h=(1+f(x))lim⁡h→0f(h)h=(1+f(x))⋅f′(0)f'(x) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h)(1 + f(x))}{h} = (1 + f(x)) \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h)}{h} = (1 + f(x)) \cdot f'(0)

Since f′(0)=1f'(0) = 1, we have: f′(x)=1+f(x)f'(x) = 1 + f(x)

Since f(x)f(x) is continuous at x=0x = 0 (because lim⁡h→0f(h)=lim⁡h→0hg(h)=0=f(0)\lim_{h \to 0} f(h) = \lim_{h \to 0} h g(h) = 0 = f(0)), it follows that f(x)f(x) is continuous and differentiable for all x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}.

Thus, Statement (A) is TRUE.


Step 3: Determining f(x)f(x) and calculating f′(1)f'(1)

From the differential equation derived above: f′(x)=1+f(x)  ⟹  f′(x)1+f(x)=1f'(x) = 1 + f(x) \implies \frac{f'(x)}{1 + f(x)} = 1

Integrating both sides with respect to xx: ln⁡∣1+f(x)∣=x+C\ln |1 + f(x)| = x + C

Using the initial condition f(0)=0f(0) = 0: ln⁡∣1+0∣=0+C  ⟹  C=0\ln |1 + 0| = 0 + C \implies C = 0

Therefore: 1+f(x)=ex  ⟹  f(x)=ex−11 + f(x) = e^x \implies f(x) = e^x - 1

Taking the derivative of f(x)f(x): f′(x)=exf'(x) = e^x

Evaluating at x=1x = 1: f′(1)=e1=e≠1f'(1) = e^1 = e \neq 1

Thus, Statement (C) is FALSE.


Step 4: Differentiability of g(x)g(x) given g(0)=1g(0) = 1

Given f(x)=xg(x)f(x) = x g(x), if g(0)=1g(0) = 1, we define g(x)g(x) as:

g(x)={ex−1x,x≠01,x=0g(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{e^x - 1}{x}, & x \neq 0 \\ 1, & x = 0 \end{cases}

For any x≠0x \neq 0, g(x)g(x) is a quotient of differentiable functions where the denominator is non-zero, making g(x)g(x) differentiable for all x≠0x \neq 0.

At x=0x = 0, we test for differentiability using the limit definition: g′(0)=lim⁡x→0g(x)−g(0)x−0=lim⁡x→0ex−1x−1x=lim⁡x→0ex−1−xx2g'(0) = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{g(x) - g(0)}{x - 0} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\frac{e^x - 1}{x} - 1}{x} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{e^x - 1 - x}{x^2}

Using the Taylor series expansion of ex=1+x+x22!+x33!+…e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \dots: g′(0)=lim⁡x→0(1+x+x22+O(x3))−1−xx2=lim⁡x→0x22+O(x3)x2=12g'(0) = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\left(1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^3)\right) - 1 - x}{x^2} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^3)}{x^2} = \frac{1}{2}

Since g′(0)g'(0) exists and is finite, g(x)g(x) is differentiable at x=0x = 0 as well. Hence, g(x)g(x) is differentiable at every x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}.

Thus, Statement (B) is TRUE.


Conclusion

The correct options are (A), (B), and (D).