To determine the correct statement, let us analyze the properties of the function f:(0,1)→R defined by:
f(x)=1−bxb−x,where 0<b<1.
1. Injectivity (One-One)
We find the derivative of f(x) with respect to x:
f′(x)=(1−bx)2dxd(b−x)⋅(1−bx)−(b−x)⋅dxd(1−bx)
f′(x)=(1−bx)2(−1)(1−bx)−(b−x)(−b)=(1−bx)2−1+bx+b2−bx=(1−bx)2b2−1
Since 0<b<1, we have b2−1<0.
Also, for any x∈(0,1), (1−bx)2>0.
Thus,
f′(x)<0∀x∈(0,1).
Since f′(x)<0 everywhere on (0,1), f(x) is strictly decreasing on (0,1). This means f is an injective (one-one) function.
2. Surjectivity (Onto)
Since f(x) is continuous and strictly decreasing on (0,1), we evaluate its limits at the boundaries of the domain (0,1):
limx→0+f(x)=limx→0+1−bxb−x=b
limx→1−f(x)=limx→1−1−bxb−x=1−bb−1=−1
Thus, the range of f is:
Range(f)=(−1,b)
The given codomain of the function f:(0,1)→R is R.
Since Range(f)=(−1,b)=R, f is not surjective (onto).
3. Conclusion on Invertibility
A function f:A→B is invertible if and only if it is a bijection (both one-one and onto).
Since f is not surjective onto the codomain R, f is not invertible on (0,1).
Consequently:
- Option (A) is correct.
- Options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because the inverse function f−1 does not exist for f:(0,1)→R.
Correct Answer: A