JEE Challenger
More from Application of Derivatives

Analysis of Properties of Function Involving Cosine of Reciprocal

For the function
f(x)=xcos⁡1x,x≥1,f(x)=x \cos \frac{1}{x}, \quad x \ge 1,

Options

A

for at least one xx in the interval [1,∞)[1, \infty), f(x+2)−f(x)<2f(x+2)-f(x)<2

B

lim⁡x→∞f′(x)=1\lim_{x \to \infty} f'(x) = 1

Correct
C

for all xx in the interval [1,∞)[1, \infty), f(x+2)−f(x)>2f(x+2)-f(x)>2

Correct
D

f′(x)f'(x) is strictly decreasing in the interval [1,∞)[1, \infty)

Correct

Step-by-Step Solution

To determine the correct options, let us analyze the properties of the function f(x)=xcos⁡(1x)f(x) = x \cos \left(\frac{1}{x}\right) for x≥1x \ge 1.

1. First Derivative of f(x)f(x)

Differentiating f(x)f(x) with respect to xx using the product rule:
f′(x)=ddx[xcos⁡(1x)]=cos⁡(1x)+x(−sin⁡(1x))(−1x2)f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx} \left[ x \cos \left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \right] = \cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) + x \left(-\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right) \left(-\frac{1}{x^2}\right)
f′(x)=cos⁡(1x)+1xsin⁡(1x)f'(x) = \cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) + \frac{1}{x}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)

2. Evaluation of Option (B)

Taking the limit as x→∞x \to \infty:
lim⁡x→∞f′(x)=lim⁡x→∞[cos⁡(1x)+1xsin⁡(1x)]\lim_{x \to \infty} f'(x) = \lim_{x \to \infty} \left[ \cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) + \frac{1}{x}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \right]
As x→∞x \to \infty, 1x→0\frac{1}{x} \to 0, which gives:
lim⁡x→∞f′(x)=cos⁡(0)+0⋅sin⁡(0)=1+0=1\lim_{x \to \infty} f'(x) = \cos(0) + 0 \cdot \sin(0) = 1 + 0 = 1
Thus, Option (B) is correct.

3. Monotonicity of f′(x)f'(x) (Option D)

To determine the monotonicity of f′(x)f'(x), we differentiate f′(x)f'(x) with respect to xx:
f′′(x)=ddx[cos⁡(1x)+1xsin⁡(1x)]f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) + \frac{1}{x}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \right]
f′′(x)=−sin⁡(1x)(−1x2)−1x2sin⁡(1x)+1xcos⁡(1x)(−1x2)f''(x) = -\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\left(-\frac{1}{x^2}\right) - \frac{1}{x^2}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) + \frac{1}{x}\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\left(-\frac{1}{x^2}\right)
f′′(x)=1x2sin⁡(1x)−1x2sin⁡(1x)−1x3cos⁡(1x)=−1x3cos⁡(1x)f''(x) = \frac{1}{x^2}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) - \frac{1}{x^2}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) - \frac{1}{x^3}\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = -\frac{1}{x^3}\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)

For x∈[1,∞)x \in [1, \infty), we have 1x∈(0,1]\frac{1}{x} \in (0, 1]. In this interval, cos⁡(1x)>0\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) > 0 and x3>0x^3 > 0, hence:
f′′(x)=−1x3cos⁡(1x)<0f''(x) = -\frac{1}{x^3}\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) < 0
Since f′′(x)<0f''(x) < 0 for all x∈[1,∞)x \in [1, \infty), f′(x)f'(x) is strictly decreasing in the interval [1,∞)[1, \infty).
Thus, Option (D) is correct.

4. Evaluation of Options (A) and (C)

By Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, since f(x)f(x) is continuous on [x,x+2][x, x+2] and differentiable on (x,x+2)(x, x+2) for any x≥1x \ge 1, there exists some c∈(x,x+2)c \in (x, x+2) such that:
f(x+2)−f(x)(x+2)−x=f′(c)  ⟹  f(x+2)−f(x)=2f′(c)\frac{f(x+2) - f(x)}{(x+2) - x} = f'(c) \implies f(x+2) - f(x) = 2f'(c)

Since f′(x)f'(x) is strictly decreasing on [1,∞)[1, \infty) and lim⁡x→∞f′(x)=1\lim_{x \to \infty} f'(x) = 1, the infimum of f′(x)f'(x) on [1,∞)[1, \infty) is 11. Therefore:
f′(c)>1for all c∈[1,∞)f'(c) > 1 \quad \text{for all } c \in [1, \infty)

Consequently:
f(x+2)−f(x)=2f′(c)>2(1)=2for all x∈[1,∞)f(x+2) - f(x) = 2f'(c) > 2(1) = 2 \quad \text{for all } x \in [1, \infty)

Hence, f(x+2)−f(x)>2f(x+2) - f(x) > 2 holds for all x∈[1,∞)x \in [1, \infty).
Thus, Option (C) is correct, and Option (A) is incorrect.

Conclusion

The correct options are B, C, and D.